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MAT Test Papers Page .. 1 ..
Section � 1
1. Which of the following correctly constitutes the three organs of the government?
(a) Executive, democracy and judiciary (b) Executive, legislature and judiciary
(c) Executive, bureaucracy and judiciary (d) Legislature, bureaucracy and democracy
2. Which of the following sources yields the maximum revenue to the Union Government?
(a) Income tax (b) Property tax (c) Excise duty (d) Customs duty
3. April 22 is observed every year as ___.
(a) Earth Day (b) World Environment Day
(c) World Health Day (d) World Haemophilia Day
4. Who is leading the LTTE delegation for the peace process with Sri Lanka?
(a) Vaiko (b) V. Prabhakaran (c) G. L. Peris (d) Anton Balasingham
5. Who was the first UN Secretary General?
(a) Trygve Lie (b) Dag Hammarskjold
(c) U. Thant (d) Dr Boutros Boutros Ghali
6. The island of Perejil was recently in dispute between ___.
(a) Italy and Morocco (b) Spain and Morocco
(c) Ghana and Morocco (d) Spain and Ghana
7. NASDAQ is an acronym for
(a) The National Association of Securities Dealers Automated Quotations.
(b) The National Association of Securities and Dealers Automatic Quotations.
(c) The National Association of Associated Securities and Dealers Quotations.
(d) The National Association of Securities Dealers and Accepted Quotations.
8. Which among the following countries does not have veto power in the UN Security Council?
(a) France (b) England (c) Germany (d) Russia
9. India is not the member of which of the following organizations?
(a) NAM (b) SAARC (c) ASEAN (d) Commonwealth
10. Where is the headquarters of Organisation of Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) situated?
(a) Vienna (b) New York (c) Abu Dhabi (d) Kuwait City
11. Deodhar Trophy, Rohinton Baria Trophy and Sheesh Mahal Trophy are associated with ___.
(a) football (b) cricket (c) hockey (d) badminton
12. Who is the winner of the Vyas Samman for the year 2002?
(a) Govinda Chandra Pandey (b) Ram Moorti Tripathi
(c) Dr Kailash Vajpayee (d) Kamleshwar
13. Which of the following represents the name of the mascot of the World Cup Cricket that took place in March
2003?
(a) Dazzler (b) Panda (c) Rhinto (d) Pincho
14. Uber Cup is associated with which of the following games.
(a) Hockey (b) Football (c) Table Tennis (d) Badminton
15. With which of the following Articles of the Constitution would you associate the establishment of panchayats?
(a) Article 36 (b) Article 40 (c) Article 52 (d) Article 61
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16. Approximately what percentage of the total GDP is contributed by the agriculture sector of India?
(a) 15 (b) 20 (c) 25 (d) 30
17. Which of the following is a pharmaceutical company?
(a) TAG Heuer (b) Aventis (c) Cartier (d) Omega
18. 'Kananaskis' was the venue of the G-8 Summit that took place in 2002. This place is located in which of the
following countries?
(a) Germany (b) Italy (c) Canada (d) Australia
19. Which of the following represents the expansion of 'T' in C-DOT?
(a) Teleservices (b) Telecome
(c) Telecommunications (d) Telematics
20. Which among the following represents the number of member countries of the Commonwealth?
(a) 36 (b) 42 (c) 54 (d) 62
21. 'El Nino' is a term you would associate with ___.
(a) astrology (b) meteorology (c) computers (d) psychology
22. Who among the following is the chief executive officer (CEO) of world's largest software company Microsoft?
(a) Paul Allen (b) Bill Gates (c) John Sidgmore (d) Steve Balmer
23. Which of the following personalities would you associate with committee on taxes?
(a) Y. V. Reddy (b) Vijay Kelkar (c) N. K. Singh (d) M. S. Ahluwalia
24. Who is regarded as 'The Father of Economics'?
(a) J. M. Keynes (b) J. K. Galbraith (c) Vernon Smith (d) Adam Smith
25. Who was appointed as the chairman of the 12th Finance Commission, recently?
(a) Dr Rakesh Mohan (b) Prof S. D. Tendulkar
(c) Dr C. Rangarajan (d) V. Kamesam
26. According to a recent report, the most competitive economy of the world is ___.
(a) Finland (b) USA (c) Singapore (d) Hong Kong
27. The disinvestment target of Government of India for 2002-03 is ___.
(a) Rs. 8,000 crore (b) Rs. 10,000 crore (c) Rs. 12,000 crore (d) Rs. 14,000 crore
28. The first person to walk in space is ___.
(a) Neil Armstrong (b) A. A. Leonov (c) Yuri Gagarin (d) Edwin Aldrin
29. By sex ratio we mean
(a) the number of females per 1,000 males.
(b) the number of males in the population per 1,000 female population.
(c) the number of married females in the population per 1,000 male population.
(d) the number of married males in the population per 1,000 female population.
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30. Match the columns:
State Capital
(A) Uttaranchal 1. Ranchi
(B) Chhattisgarh 2. Dispur
(C) Jharkhand 3. Dehradun
(D) Assam 4. Raipur
(a) A - 3, B - 4, C - 1, D - 2 (b) A - 4, B - 3, C - 1, D - 2
(c) A - 3, B - 4, C - 2, D - 1 (d) A - 4, B - 3, C - 2, D - 1
31. Who among the following cannot be impeached?
(a) The President (b) The Vice President (c) The Chief Justice (d) The Governor
32. The number of members nominated by the President in the Rajya Sabha is ___.
(a) two (b) eight (c) ten (d) twelve
33. Who among the following do not participate in the election for the President?
(a) The elected members of the Lok Sabha
(b) The elected members of the Rajya Sabha
(c) The elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the states
(d) The nominated members of the Rajya Sabha, Lok Sabha and state legislatures
34. Which of the following representative bodies cannot be dissolved?
(a) Lok Sabha (b) Rajya Sabha
(c) Legislative Assembly (d) State Legislative Council
35. Which of the following is the true index of economic growth?
(a) An increase in the per capita income at constant prices.
(b) An increase in the national income at current prices.
(c) An increase in the gross domestic product at constant prices.
(d) An increase in the gross domestic product at current prices.
36. World Human Rights Day is observed every year on ___.
(a) December 1 (b) December 8 (c) December 10 (d) December 16
37. What effect does an indirect tax have on a commodity?
(a) Increases its price (b) Reduces its price
(c) Increases its production (d) Keeps the price constant
38. The largest read daily in India is ___.
(a) The Times of India (b) The Hindustan Times
(c) Amar Ujala (d) Dainik Bhaskar
39. Which constitutional amendment is called the 'Mini Constitution'?
(a) 42nd Amendment (b) 43rd Amendment (c) 44th Amendment (d) 45th Amendment
40. Which organization celebrated 150 years of its establishment in 2002?
(a) Post and Telegraph (b) Indian Railways
(c) Airport Authority of India (d) VSNL
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Section � 2
Direction for questions 41 to 45: Read the passage, and answer the questions following
Not only mathematics is dependent on us and our thoughts, but in another sense, we and the whole universe of
existing things are dependent on mathematics. The apprehension of this purely ideal character is indispensable if we
are to understand rightly the place of mathematics as one among the arts. It was formerly supposed that pure reason
could decide in some respects as to the nature of the actual world: geometry, at least, was thought to deal with the
space in which we live. But we now know that pure mathematics can never pronounce upon the questions of actual
existence: the world of reason, in a sense, controls the world of facts, but it is not at any point creative of fact, and in
the application of its results to the world in time and space, its certainty and precision are lost among approximations
and working hypotheses. The objects considered by mathematicians have, in the past, been mainly of a kind suggested
by phenomena; but from such restrictions, the abstract imagination should be wholly free. A reciprocal liberty must
be accorded; reason cannot dictate to the world of facts, but the fact cannot restrict reason's privilege of dealing with
whatever objects its love of beauty may cause to seem worthy of consideration. Here, as elsewhere, we build up our
ideals out of the fragments to be found in the world; and in the end, it is hard to say whether the result is a creation
or a discovery.
41. With which of the following would the author agree?
I. Mankind relies on mathematics for its very existence.
II. Geometry was believed to deal with space in which we live.
III. The world of reason has no control over the world of fact.
(a) Only I (b) I and III (c) Only III (d) I and II
42. What does 'indispensable' mean?
(a) Cannot be cured (b) Cannot be curtailed (c) Cannot be evaded (d) Cannot bear it
43. When the results of pure mathematics are applied to the universe of existing things,
(a) its findings no longer have complete certainty and preciseness.
(b) mathematics ceases to be a science.
(c) the abstract imagination of the mathematicians is free of restrictions.
(d) the nature of the actual world stands revealed.
44. According to Russell, 'a reciprocal liberty' must be obtained between
(a) mathematics and applied science.
(b) reason and facts.
(c) mathematical objects and objects created by abstract imagination.
(d) the study of pure mathematics and an application of its results.
45. The end-product of mathematics
(a) is a statement of what was previously unknown.
(b) is a creation of what did not exist earlier.
(c) is a discovery of previously unknown object.
(d) could possibly be either a creation or a discovery.
Direction for questions 46 to 50: Read the passage, and answer the questions following it.
One of the greatest public speaking failures of my career took place last summer at Valparaiso University, Indiana
where I addressed a convention of editors of college newspapers. I said many screamingly funny things but the
applause was dismal at the end. During the evening, I asked one of my hosts in what way I had offended the audience.
He replied that they had hoped I would moralize. They had hired me as a moralist.
So now when I speak to students, I do moralize. I tell them not to take more than they need, not to be greedy. I tell them
not to kill, even in self-defence. I tell them not to pollute water or the atmosphere.
I tell them not to raid the public treasury. I tell them not to commit war crimes or to help others to commit war crimes.
These morals go over very well. They are of course echoes of what the young say to themselves.
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I had a friend from Schenectady visited me recently, and he asked me this, "Why are fewer and fewer young Americans
going into science each year?" I hold him that the young were impressed by the war crimes trials at Nuremberg. They
were afraid that careers in science could all too easily lead to the commission of war crimes. They don't want to work
on the development of new weapons. They don't want to make discoveries which will lead to improved weapons.
They don't want to work for corporations that pollute water or atmosphere or raid the public treasury. So they go into
other fields. They become physicists who are so virtuous that they don't go into physics at all.
At the University of Michigan, at Ann Arbor, the students have been raising hell about the university doing secret
government work. I go to talk with some of the students about the protests that had been made against the recruiters
of Dow Chemicals, manufacturers of napalm among other things.
I offered the opinion that an attack on a Dow recruiter was about as significant as an attack on the doorman or theatre
usher. I didn't think the recruiter stood for anything.
I called attention to the fact that during the Dow protest at Harvard a couple of years back, the actual inventor of
napalm was able to circulate through the crowd of protestors unmolested. I didn't find the fact that he was unmolested
reprehensible. I saw it as a moral curiosity. Though I did not mean to suggest to the students at Ann Arbor that the
inventor of napalm should have been given one hell of a time.
46. In this address at Valparaiso University, the author
(a) became the greatest public speaker of the summer.
(b) made the audience laugh a lot by screaming in a funny way.
(c) was dismayed by the audience at the end.
(d) felt that he did make a significant impression on the audience.
47. Moralists are
(a) young people who speak to themselves about water and atmospheric pollution.
(b) not fond of jokes made of sacrosanct things.
(c) opposed to taking up science as a career.
(d) concerned about hiring working to raid the public treasury.
48. The author's perception is that young people
(a) like to hear lectures on morals.
(b) were so impressed by the Nuremberg trials that they gave up physics.
(c) would have been scientists but for the pollution created by science.
(d) do not like to kill even in self-defence.
49. The author regarded the inventor of napalm as
(a) morally reprehensible.
(b) someone who should have been attacked but was not.
(c) a person who was attacked by Harvard students.
(d) a moral curiosity.
50. It is implied from the author's comments that the present-day students
(a) do not care much for scientific discoveries.
(b) prefer to be told what is right or wrong.
(c) lack a sense of discipline.
(d) lack a sense of humour.
Direction for questions 51 to 53: In the following questions, select the answer choice that provides the best meaning
of the word given.
51. ELICIT
(a) to act illegally (b) to deceive (c) to draw forth (d) to entreat
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52. CULMINATE
(a) to slander (b) to reach a final effect (c) to overwhelm (d) to heap together
53. APPERTAIN
(a) to comprehend (b) to procure (c) to belong (d) to find out
Direction for questions 54 to 58: Fill in the blanks with the appropriate choices.
54. For almost seven years, Mrs Jacob ___ unable to move her head.
(a) was (b) looks (c) had been (d) is
55. Biofeedback training is based on the ___ that we can gain control on our bodily functions.
(a) understanding (b) aspect (c) feeling (d) premise
56. The sharp cracking of a twig mixed with a bird's ___ made a great impact on him.
(a) cry (b) shriek (c) squawk (d) scream
57. It is possible to listen to ___ as well as to sound, just as it is possible to see both light and shadow.
(a) music (b) silence (c) instrument (d) voice
58. He prefers swimming ___ any other sport.
(a) than (b) over (c) to (d) against
Direction for questions 59 to 63: From the four choices provided, choose the analogy that is most similar to the one
in the question.
59. wealth : poverty
(a) part : whole (b) good : excellent (c) prodigal : chary (d) wicked : sinful
60. misfortune : catastrophe
(a) miniature : big (b) limited : infinite (c) knowledge : learning (d) generosity : parsimony
61. molecule : atoms
(a) family : sisters (b) light : bulb (c) tissue : cells (d) body : limb
62. limp : walk
(a) flap : fly (b) run : race (c) stutter : talk (d) chew : digest
63. riddle : solve
(a) mirage : illusion (b) joke : amuse (c) tangle : unravel (d) target : aim
Direction for questions 64 to 68: A number of sentences are given below which, when properly sequenced, form a
coherent paragraph, Each sentence is labelled with a letter. Choose the most logical order of sentences from among
the four given choices to construct a coherent paragraph.
64. A. It is turning off the tap.
B. And with no consensus of the exit policy, the government is damned if it supports loss-making units and
damned if it doesn't.
C. The private sector did the same in the past because securing legal sanction for closure was virtually
impossible.
D. After years of funding the losses of public sector companies, the government is doing the unthinkable.
(a) DACB (b) CADB (c) DCAB (d) BDAC
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65. A. Trade protocols were signed, the dollar as the medium of exchange was ignored, trade was denominated
in rupees and the exchange rate between the two countries was to be fixed outside the ambit of free
markets.
B. A young India, some years after independence fashioning her foreign policy of non-alignment, found it
prudent to stay close to the former Soviet Union.
C. Once upon a time there was a superpower named Soviet Union that attracted apprehension of the global
aspirations of the other superpower, the US.
D. One way of doing this was to evolve a bilateral relations in trade that could be called upon to provide a
buffer against the arm-twisting by the US.
(a) CBAD (b) BADC (c) BCAD (d) CBDA
66. A. I had heard that sort of thing before.
B. He said that his generation was the first to believe that it had no future.
C. A young American made earthling stopped by my house the other day to talk about some book of mine
he had read.
D. He was the son of a Boston man who had died an alcoholic vagrant.
(a) CDBA (b) ABCD (c) CBAD (d) ABDC
67. A. In 1995, that ratio has gone up to 60 per cent, an average annual growth of 8-10 per cent.
B. Fifty years ago, India's roads carried 11 per cent of the goods traffic that moved.
C. Indian roads have emerged as a very important mode of transport.
D. That sounds good, but at the same time, the number of vehicles registered has gone up by 121 times in the
same period.
(a) ABCD (b) CDAB (c) CBAD (d) CABD
68. A. Siasat competes with Rehnuma and Munsif, both of are aggressive players.
B. As many as 25 per cent of the 0.3 million NRIs in the Gulf are estimated to be from Andhra Pradesh and
mostly Hyderabad.
C. The Urdu daily scenario of Hyderabad is very competitive.
D. For Siasat, an interesting outgrowth is its international presence.
(a) ABCD (b) CBDA (c) CADB (d) BCDA
Direction for questions 69 to 73: In each of the following sentences, a part of the sentence is underlined. Beneath
each sentence four different ways of phrasing the underlined part are indicated. Choose the best alternative among
the four options.
69. He considers me as a fool.
(a) I as a fool (b) me for a fool (c) I for a fool (d) me a fool
70. The accountant has all ready given the balance sheet.
(a) already given (b) already give (c) already make (d) allready given
71. Jack may be a better player to me.
(a) a better player than me (b) a better player than I
(c) the better player to me (d) the better player than I
72. He not only was competent but also intelligent.
(a) Not only he was competent (b) He was not only competent
(c) Not only was he competent (d) He was competent not only
73. There have been heavy rainfall yesterday.
(a) have been strong rainfall (b) has been strong rainfall
(c) has been heavy rainfall (d) was been heavy rainfall
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Direction for questions 74 to 77: Choose the alternative that gives the closest meaning for the underlined expression.
74. Our plans were all set, and then she came along to upset the apple cart.
(a) to make apple pie (b) to bring a basket of apples
(c) to spoil our plans (d) to be clumsy
75. I still insist that Ryan is not as black as he is painted.
(a) not so tamed (b) not a good artist
(c) not pessimistic (d) not as bad as he is said to be
76. He chewed over the bizarre incident and decided to inform his uncle.
(a) slept over (b) overate (c) dreamed over (d) consider at length
77. His friends advised him to be fair and square in his dealings.
(a) careful (b) considerate (c) polite (d) upright
Direction for questions 78 to 80: Mark the alternative that has the opposite meaning of the word given in the
question.
78. audit
(a) check (b) bother (c) study (d) overlook
79. authenticate
(a) real (b) genuine (c) confirm (d) tenacious
80. avid
(a) eager (b) passive (c) interested (d) energetic
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Section � 3
Direction for questions 81 to 85: Answer the questions based on the following information available in the bar
graph. The graph represents the annual supply and requirement of power in billion kWh in India in different years.
Power supply in India (kWh in billion)
60
70
80
90
100
110
120
130
140
150
160
170
1974-75 75-76 76-77 77-78 78-79 79-80 80-81 81-82 82-83 83-84 84-85
Year
Unit
Requirement Supply
81. What was the percentage increase in the supply of power from the start to the end of the given period?
(a) 144 (b) 112 (c) 128 (d) None of these
82. The cumulative difference between the requirement and supply of power (kWh in billions) within a decade of
1974-75 to 1983-84 is
(a) 119 (b) 131 (c) 149 (d) 151
83. What is the ratio of the availability of supply in 1976-77 to the requirement in 1983-84?
(a) 0.57 (b) 0.63 (c) 0.51 (d) 0.36
84. The difference between the percentage increase of supply from 1976-77 to 1980-81 and the percentage increase
in requirement from 1980-81 to 1984-85 is
(a) 12% (b) 19% (c) 16% (d) None of these
85. How many years have registered a minimum of 10% increase in the requirement of power compared to the
previous year?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 0
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Direction for questions 86 to 90: Answer the questions based on the following information provided in the tabular
form, given below. A survey was conducted for monthly per capita consumer expenditure of different food and nonfood
items (in per cent).
1983 1978 1973 1983 1978 1973
Cereal 36.3 37.4 46.0 22.9 24.4 27.2
Milk 7.5 7.7 7.3 9.2 9.5 9.3
Oil 4.0 3.6 3.5 4.8 4.6 4.8
Meat 3.0 2.7 2.5 3.6 3.5 3.3
Vegetable 4.7 3.8 3.6 5.0 4.4 4.4
Fruit 1.4 1.1 1.1 2.1 2.0 2.0
Sugar 2.8 2.6 3.8 2.5 2.6 3.6
Other foods 5.8 5.5 5.2 9.0 9.0 9.9
Food total 65.6 64.3 72.9 59.1 60.0 64.5
Intoxicants 3.0 2.9 3.1 2.4 2.4 2.8
Fuel 7.0 6.0 5.6 6.9 6.4 5.6
Clothing 8.6 8.7 7.0 7.6 7.0 5.3
Footwear 1.0 0.7 0.5 1.1 0.6 0.4
Durables 2.3 7.0 2.2 2.3 8.9 2.2
Mis cellaneous 12.5 10.3 8.7 20.5 14.6 19.2
Non-food total 34.4 35.7 27.1 40.9 40.0 35.5
Monthly per capita consumer expenditure of different items (in per cent).
Rural Urban
Item
86. The percentage of per capita expenditure on food registered what percentage decrease between 1973 and 1983
(for urban consumers)?
(a) 9 (b) 10 (c) 10.5 (d) 8
87. If the total per capita expenditure in an urban household in 1973 was Rs. 531, approximately, how much of it
was spent on sugar?
(a) Rs. 16.80 (b) Rs. 18.30 (c) Rs. 19.10 (d) Rs. 21.00
88. If the total per capita expenditure in 1978 in the rural areas was Rs. 580, how much of it was spent on clothing?
(a) Rs. 48.20 (b) Rs. 50.50 (c) Rs. 51.70 (d) Rs. 54.75
89. In 1983, if the rural and urban per capita expenditures were Rs. 665 and Rs. 765, respectively, what was the
difference between their per capita expenditures on food items?
(a) Rs. 16 (b) Rs. 19 (c) Rs. 21 (d) Rs. 25
90. In 1973, in the rural areas, the per capita expenditure on oil formed what per cent of the per capita expenditure
on vegetables?
(a) 97.2 (b) 99.4 (c) 102.5 (d) None of these
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Direction for questions 91 to 95: These questions are to be answered with the help of the following bar graph, that
gives total number of licenceholders for screening metallurgical, electrical, chemical and textiles industries during the
years 1992 to 1995.
Number of industrial licence holders
0
200
400
600
800
1000
1200
1400
1600
1800
Metallurgical Electrical Chemical Textiles
1992 1993 1994 1995
91. What is the difference between the total number of new licences issued to all the mentioned industries in 1993
and 1995?
(a) 120 (b) 15 (c) 155 (d) 60
92. The number of newly issued licences to the Electrical industry between 1992 and 1994 forms approximately
what per cent of a similar increase in the Metallurgical industry during the same period?
(a) 95 (b) 105.25 (c) 123.4 (d) Insufficient data
93. Which of the following industries has had the smallest percentage increase in the number of licences issued
over the 4-year period mentioned in the graph?
(a) Metallurgical (b) Electrical (c) Chemical (d) Textile
94. If the average cost of setting up a new textiles unit is Rs. 20 lakh while maintaining an existing unit is Rs. 1 lakh,
what was the average expenditure of textiles unit in the year 1993?
(a) Rs. 13 lakh (b) Rs. 23 lakh (c) Rs. 11.45 crore (d) Rs. 1.71 lakh
95. Due to a new government regulation in 1994, 40% of the new licences issued to chemical industries in 1994
and 20% of the existing industries in the chemical sector were forced to shut down because of non-conformance
to the new environmental laws. What per cent of the chemical industries remained unaffected?
(a) 66.6 (b) 24.1 (c) 61.3 (d) 78.5
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Direction for questions 96 to 100: Answer the questions based on the following data.
A company Daant Chamko Ltd. is planning to introduce a new variety of toothpaste. It has recruited MBA summer
trainees to conduct a market research to establish the relationship between the price of a toothpaste used by a
household and the household's monthly income. The following information is gathered.
< Rs. 1, 500 Rs. 1, 500-2, 500 Rs. 2, 500-3, 500 Rs. 3, 500-5, 000 > Rs. 5, 000
< 4 1500 500 � � �
4 � 6 1750 750 350 150 50
6 � 8 500 1200 400 200 50
8 � 10 250 450 500 400 100
> 10 50 100 250 300 200
Price of toothpaste
used (Rs.)
Number of households by income category
96. What is the average price of a toothpaste used by a household with income of over Rs. 5,000?
(a) Rs. 8.75 (b) Rs. 9.00 (c) Rs. 6.95 (d) Cannot be determined
97. What is the probability of a household with income less than or equal to Rs. 5,000 p.m. using a toothpaste
costing less than Rs. 8?
(a) 0.92 (b) 0.76 (c) 0.63 (d) None of these
98. If a family uses a toothpaste priced at between Rs. 6 and Rs. 8, what is the probability that its income is at least
Rs. 2,500 p.m.?
(a) 0.20 (b) 0.22 (c) 0.28 (d) 0.02
99. What is the ratio of households with income of less than Rs. 1,500 p.m. to the total number of households?
(a) 0.68 (b) 0.915 (c) 0.405 (d) 0.210
100. Which of the following can be definitely stated?
I. As income increases, consumption of low-priced toothpastes drops.
II. Lower the income, no expensive toothpaste will be used by that household.
III. More than 50% of the households have incomes less than Rs. 2,500 p.m.
(a) Only I (b) Only III (c) I and III (d) II and III
Direction for questions 101 to 105: The following bar graph gives monthly imports and exports (in Rs. million)
during the financial year 1985-86. Answer the questions based on information from this bar graph.
Monthly Imports and Exports - 1985-86
377.5
372.5
380
390
387.5
387.5
382.5
370
377.5
382.5
380
392.5
377.5
380
385
385
365
370
382.5
375
372.5
380
372.5
375
350
355
360
365
370
375
380
385
390
395
APR. MAY. JUN. JUL. AUG. SEP. OCT. NOV. DEC. JAN. FEB. MAR.
APR. - DEC. 1985 JAN. - MAR. 1986
Imports
Exports
MAT Test Papers Page .. 13 ..
101. What was the total value of exports (in Rs. mn) during the period April-Sept. 1985?
(a) Rs. 1,885 (b) Rs. 2,632 (c) Rs. 2,257.5 (d) Rs. 2,325
102. The gap between monthly imports and exports was greatest in ___.
(a) Aug. and Sept. (b) Sept. and Dec.
(c) Dec. and Jan. (d) Aug. and Nov.
103. In the first three months of 1986, imports exceeded exports by ___.
(a) Rs. 27.5 mn (b) Rs. 20 mn (c) Rs. 17.5 mn (d) Rs. 32.5 mn
104. During the financial year 1985-86,
(a) imports exceeded exports by Rs. 100 million.
(b) imports exceeded exports by Rs. 60 million.
(c) exports exceeded imports by Rs. 250 million.
(d) exports and imports were of equal value.
105. In how many months did the imports exceed exports?
(a) 8 (b) 3 (c) 7 (d) 9
Direction for questions 106 to 110: Answer the following questions based on the following graph given below. The
graph represents the annual production of the two types of vehicles, type P and type Q, (in thousands) from the year
1985 to 1990.
Production of two types (type P and Q) of vehicles by a
factory over the years (In thousands)
0
20
40
60
80
100
120
140
160
180
1985 1986 1987 1988 1989 1990
YEARS
Number of Vehicles in thousands
TYPE-P
TYPE-Q
106. In which of the following years was the total production of both P-and Q-type of vehicles together, the
maximum?
(a) 1986 (b) 1990 (c) 1989 (d) 1987
107. In which of the following years was the percentage increase in production of Q-type vehicles exactly 30 over
the previous year?
(a) 1987 (b) 1989 (c) 1990 (d) 1988
108. The production of Q-type vehicles in 1988 was approximately what per cent of P-type vehicles in the same
year?
(a) 140 (b) 30 (c) 122 (d) 162
MAT Test Papers Page .. 14 ..
109. What was the difference in production of number of Q-type vehicles between 1988 and 1989?
(a) 20,000 (b) 2,00,000 (c) 2,000 (d) 40,000
110. What was the approximate percentage drop in production of P-type vehicles from 1987 to 1988?
(a) 60 (b) 50 (c) 40 (d) 35
Direction for questions 111 to 120: Each of the following questions consists of a question and two statements I and
II.
Choose:
(a) if the question can be answered by one statement alone, but cannot be answered by using
the other statement alone.
(b) if the question can be answered by using either statement alone.
(c) if the question can be answered by using both the statements together but cannot be answered by using
either statement alone.
(d) if the question cannot be answered even by using both the statements together.
111. What are the individual prices of three cameras?
I. The three cameras have an average price of $172.
II. Two are identical and sold for $332 together.
112. In the given circle with centre O, what is the measure of ∠ONP?
O
P
N M
I. o OMN 31 ∠ =
II. o NMP 98 ∠ =
113. What is the numerical value of the ratio
n
m
?
I. mn = 14
II. m = 6n
114. What is the highest power of 5 that can completely divide n!
I. Precisely 2 integers between 1 and n, both inclusively are multiples of 50.
II. n < 200.
115. What is the area of a regular hexagon?
I. The length of one of the boundary lines of the hexagon is 36 cm.
II. The area of the hexagon is 6 times the area of an equilateral triangle formed on one of the sides.
116. Mr. Dhingra earns Rs. 8, 000 per month by working as a visiting lecturer in various colleges. What is his
annual income?
I. During his entire free time, he gives free coaching to deserving students.
II. 40 students attend his free sessions.
117. A positive number is exactly divisible by both 3 and 7. What is that number?
I. It is greater than 20.
II. It is less than 25.
MAT Test Papers Page .. 15 ..
118. A radio is normally sold at a profit of 15%. At the annual sale, it is offered at a discount of 5%. What is its cost
price?
I. The selling price after discount amounts to Rs. 150.
II. The discount given is Rs. 30.
119. A room 20 m � 10 m is to be painted. What will be the total cost?
I. The height of the room is 3 m.
II. Costing will be done on a square metre basis.
120. A train leaves from Delhi at 8.00 a.m. and reaches Agra 11.30 a.m. What is its speed?
I. It crosses a 400 metre-long bridge in 40 seconds.
II. It crosses a railway platform 800 metres long in 64 seconds.
MAT Test Papers Page .. 16 ..
Section � 4
121. The profit percentage earned by selling a watch for Rs. 820 is as much as the loss percentage incurred when
it is sold for Rs. 650. What is the cost price of the watch?
(a) Rs. 750 (b) Rs. 690 (c) Rs. 735 (d) Rs. 710
122. The ratio of the ages of Anjali and Smita is 2 : 3. After 6 years the ratio of their ages becomes 5 : 7. What is the
present age of Smita?
(a) 24 years (b) 30 years (c) 36 years (d) 18 years
123. In a group of 7 people, the average age is found to be 17 years. Two more people joined with an average age
19 years. One person left the group whose age was 25 years. What is the new average age of the group?
(a) 17.5 years (b) 16.5 years (c) 18 years (d) 16 years
124. One-fifth of the boys and one-fourth of the girls in a class exclusively joined a swimming camp. Two-thirds of
boys and three-fifths of girls exclusively joined a sports camp. If the total number of boys and girls in the class
is 65, how many girls joined the sports camp?
(a) 12 (b) 4 (c) 16 (d) Can't be determined
125. Bucket P has thrice the capacity as bucket Q. It takes 60 turns for bucket P to fill the empty drum. How many
turns will it take for both the buckets P and Q together to fill the empty drum?
(a) 30 (b) 40 (c) 45 (d) 90
126. If a sum of money is divided equally among n children, each child will receive $60. If another child is added to
the group, and the sum is divided equally among all the children, each child receives a $50 share. What is the
sum of money?
(a) $3000 (b) $300 (c) $110 (d) $10
127. The average age of boys and girls in a class is 10.5 years; that of the boys is 10.6 years and that of the girls is
10.1 years. If there are 60 boys in the class, how many girls are there in the class?
(a) 15 (b) 20 (c) 22 (d) 25
128. x is a whole number. If the only common factors of x and x2 are 1 and x, then x is ___.
(a) 1 (b) a perfect square (c) an odd number (d) a prime number
129. A salesman's terms were changed from a flat commission of 5% on all his sales to a fixed salary of Rs. 1,000
plus 2.5% commission on all sales exceeding Rs. 4,000. If his remuneration, according to the new scheme, was
Rs. 600 more than by the first scheme, what was his sales worth?
(a) Rs. 6,000 (b) Rs. 8,000 (c) Rs. 12,000 (d) Rs. 16,000
130. I went to a shop to purchase some refills costing Rs. 1.60 each but the clerk did not have change for my 20-
rupee note. I was constrained to purchase some 30 paise labels as well so that no money needed to be
returned. After purchasing the maximum number of refills under the given constraints, how many labels did I
have to purchase?
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 8
131. A sum of Rs. 1,000 is borrowed at a certain rate of interest. After 4 months, Rs. 500 is again borrowed, but this
time at a rate of interest that is thrice the original rate. At the end of the year, the total interest on both the
amounts is Rs. 100. What is the original rate per annum?
(a) 3.33% (b) 5% (c) 8% (d) 10%
MAT Test Papers Page .. 17 ..
132. A shopkeeper has two alternatives:
I. Giving 2 successive discounts of 20% and 30%.
II. Giving 2 successive discounts of 39% and 15%.
Which of the following is true?
(a) Alternative I is better for the customer.
(b) Alternative I is better than a discount of 42% for the shopkeeper.
(c) Alternative II is better than a discount of 40% for the customer.
(d) No conclusion is possible.
133. A set of goods together cost Rs. 1,000. One-fourth of it was sold at a loss of 10%. At what per cent must the
remainder be sold to gain 20% on the whole investment?
(a) 30 (b) 35 (c) 50 (d) 52.5
134. A tank can be filled by one tap in 10 minutes and by another in 30 minutes. Both the taps are kept open for 5
minutes and then the first one is shut off. In how many minutes more is the tank completely filled?
(a) 5 (b) 7.5 (c) 10 (d) 12
135. If the average cost of setting up a new textiles unit is Rs. 15 lakh while maintaining an existing unit is Rs. 2 lakh,
what was the average expenditure of textiles unit in the year 1993?
Number of textiles units in the year 1992 = 645
Number of textiles units in the year 1993 = 670
(a) Rs. 1.94 lakh (b) Rs. 23 lakh (c) Rs. 11.45 lakh (d) Rs. 2.5 lakh
136. The rate of simple interest on a sum of money is 6 per cent per annum for the first 3 years, 8 per cent per annum
for the next 5 years and 10 per cent per annum for the period beyond 8 years. If the simple interest accrued by
the sum for a total period of 10 years is Rs. 1,560, what is the sum?
(a) Rs. 1,500 (b) Rs. 3,000 (c) Rs. 2,000 (d) Data inadequate
137. Line AB is 24 metres in length and is tangent to the inner one of the two concentric circles at point C. Points
A and B lie on the circumference of the outer circle. It is known that the radii of the two circles are integers.
The radius of the outer circle is.
(a) 13 metres (b) 5 metres (c) 7 metres (d) 4 metres
138.
1 1 1 1 1 1
4 6 48 4 6 48 ?
1 1 1 1 1 1
4 6 48 4 6 48
− − � −
� =
− − � −
(a) 10 (b) 2 (c)
21
20
(d)
20
21
139. The interior angles of a polygon are in A.P. The smallest angle is 120� and the common difference is 5. Then
the number of sides of the polygon are
(a) 16 (b) 9 (c) 8 (d) None of these
140. Divide Rs. 1, 000 into two parts so that if the two parts are invested at 4% and 5% simple interest, the total
yearly income may be Rs. 46.50.
(a) Rs. 350 at 4% and Rs. 650 at 5% (b) Rs. 650 at 4% and Rs. 350 at 5%
(c) Rs. 400 at 4% and Rs. 600 at 5% (d) Rs. 600 at 4% and Rs. 400 at 5%
141. A large cube is formed from the material obtained by melting three smaller cubes of sides 3 cm, 4 cm and 5 cm.
What is the ratio of the total surface area of the smaller cubes to the large cube?
(a) 2 : 1 (b) 3 : 2 (c) 25 : 18 (d) 27 : 20
MAT Test Papers Page .. 18 ..
142. To complete a piece of work, A and B take 30 days, B and C take 24 days and C and A take 20 days. They all
work for 10 days, and then B and C leave. How many more days will A take to finish the work?
(a)
45
11
(b)
9
2
(c) 8 (d) 18
143. The captain of a cricket team of 11 players is 25-year old and the wicketkeeper is 3 years older than the captain.
If the ages of these two are excluded, the average age of the remaining players is 1 year less than the average
age of the whole team. What is the average age of the whole team?
(a) 21.5 year (b) 22 year (c) 22.5 year (d) 23 year
144. A man takes 5 hours to walk to a certain place and returns by car. He would have, however, gained 3 hours
if he had completed his entire journey by car. How long would he have taken to walk both ways?
(a) 6 hours (b)
1
6
2
hours (c) 7 hours (d) 8 hours
145. A one-foot tall tree was planted on New Year's day. If there is a 10 per cent increase in its height every month
with respect to the previous month, which of the following will be its height on All Fool's Day (April 1)?
(a) 1.729 feet (b) 1.312 feet (c) 1.464 feet (d) 1.331 feet
146. The average age of 40 boys of a class is 12 years. When 10 new boys are admitted, the average is increased
by 0.1 year. What is the average age of new boys?
(a) 12.1 years (b) 12.4 years (c) 12.33 years (d) 12.5 years
147. Anand and Bharat can cut 5 kg of wood in 20 min. Bharat and Chandra can cut 5 kg of wood in 40 min. Chandra
and Anand cut 5 kg of wood in 30 min. How much time Chandra will take to cut 5 kg wood alone?
(a) 120 min (b) 48 min (c) 240 min (d)
120
min
7
148. A man can row
1
4
2
kmph in still water but takes twice as long to row up a stream as down it. What is the rate
of the stream in kmph?
(a) 1.5 (b) 2.25 (c) 3 (d) Data insufficient
149. There are two squares one of whose diagonal is double that of the other. The ratio of area of the bigger one
to that of the smaller one is
(a) 3 : 2 (b) 4 : 1 (c) 1 : 4 (d) 2 : 1
150. An alloy contains copper and zinc in the ratio 5:3 and another contains copper and tin in the ratio 8 : 5. If equal
weights of the two are melted together to form a 3rd alloy, find the weight of tin per kg. in the new alloy.
(a)
40
129
(b)
5
13
(c)
5
26
(d)
28
5
Direction for questions 151 to 160: Answer each of the questions independently.
151. A train from Mumbai to Pune and another from Pune to Mumbai start at the same time, cross one another en
route and reach their destinations in 4 hour and 1 hour, respectively, after crossing. If the first train was
travelling at 24 kmph, at what speed was the second train travelling?
(a) 12 kmph (b) 48 kmph (c) 60 kmph (d) 72 kmph
MAT Test Papers Page .. 19 ..
152. In a partnership, A invests
1
6
of the capital for
1
6
of the period. B
1
3
of the capital for
1
3
of the period and
C, the rest of the capital for the entire period. What is A's share of the total profit of Rs. 2,300?
(a) Rs. 100 (b) Rs. 300 (c) Rs. 400 (d) Rs. 1,800
153. A man rows 1 km upstream in 20 min and 1 km downstream in 15 min. What is his speed of rowing in still water?
(a) 25 kmph (b) 3 kmph (c) 3.5 kmph (d) 7 kmph
154. A dealer offered a machine for Rs. 275; but even if had he charged 10% less, he would have made a 10% profit.
What did the machine actually cost him?
(a) Rs. 200 (b) Rs. 220 (c) Rs. 225 (d) Rs. 242.50
155. The sum of the cubes of three positive numbers is 8, 072 and the ratio of the first to the second as also the
second to the third is 3 : 2. What is the second number?
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 12
156. An egg-seller purchases 6 dozen eggs at 3 per Re. 1. Half a dozen eggs break during transportation. At what
rate must he sell each egg to still make a profit of 10%?
(a) 35 p (b) 37 p (c) 40 p (d) 42 p
157. In what proportion should one variety of oil at Rs. 9.50 per kg be mixed with another at Rs. 10 per kg to get a
mixture worth Rs. 9.60 per kg?
(a) 1 : 4 (b) 10 : 4 (c) 4 : 1 (d) 2 : 1
158. The population of a town increases geometrically. If the population is 10000 now and was 8000 two years ago,
what will it be two years hence if it grows at the same rate?
(a) 11175 (b) 12000 (c) 12250 (d) 12500
159. A group of students volunteered to finish a work in 25 days. 10 of the students did not turn up due to illness
and the work was finished in 35 days. The original number of students in the group was
(a) 25 (b) 30 (c) 35 (d) 45
160. The radius of a circle is equal to the length of one side of an equilateral triangle. If the perimeter of the triangle
is 3 cm what is the ratio of the area of the triangle to that of the circle?
(a)
3
22
(b)
88
7 3
(c)
7 3
22
(d)
7 3
88
MAT Test Papers Page .. 20 ..
Section � 5
Direction for questions 161 to 163: In the figure below, the triangle represents people of a particular society who can
speak English, the circle represents people who can speak Hindi, the rectangle represents people who can speak
Sanskrit whereas the square represents people who can speak Punjabi.
Answer the questions that follow on the basis of the diagram.
12 15
10
8
5
20
2 3
4
6
4
5
161. Number of people who can speak English but not Punjabi are ___.
(a) 27 (b) 18 (c) 12 (d) 32
162. How many people can speak both, Hindi and Sanskrit?
(a) 10 (b) 22 (c) 24 (d) 14
163. How many people can speak English and Hindi but not Punjabi?
(a) 12 (b) 8 (c) 9 (d) None of these
Direction for questions 164 to 178: Answer each of the following questions independently.
164. Pointing towards a lady in a photograph, a girl said, "She is the sister of my mother's husband". How is the
girl related to the lady?
(a) Daughter (b) Niece (c) Sister (d) Daughter or niece
165. A woman while talking to another said, "The father-in-law of your husband is also the son of my grandfather".
How is the latter related to the former woman?
(a) Sister (b) Cousin (c) Sister-in-law (d) Sister or cousin
166. A woman while looking at the photograph of a man said, "He is the maternal grandfather of children of my
husband's sister". How is the man related to the woman?
(a) Father (b) Father-in-law (c) Grandfather (d) Brother-in-law
167. Find the missing term
60, 40, 55, 45, 50,?
(a) 45 (b) 50 (c) 55 (d) 60
168. Complete the following number series
4, 4, 8, 24, 96, 480, ?, 20160
(a) 860 (b) 2880 (c) 3240 (d) 1140
MAT Test Papers Page .. 21 ..
169. Find the missing alphabet:
T, r, O, m, J, ?
(a) h (b) i (c) I (d) g
170. Complete the series:
ECP, DDR, CET, ?
(a) BGU (b) BFU (c) AFV (d) BFV
171. If JAPAN is coded KCSES, then the code for CASTLE will be ___.
(a) DIJOBT (b) DJKRDP (c) DKMSGR (d) DCVXQK
172. If CAUTIOUS is BBTUHPTT, then NEGLIGENT is ___.
(a) MFFMHFOS (b) MFHMHHDMU (c) MFFMHHDOS (d) MFFMHJDOS
173. In a certain language, 'cul max dir' means 'nice little boxes', 'sut med bix' means 'well arranged row', 'bix fac
dir' means 'row of boxes'. Which of the following stands for 'of' in that language?
(a) max (b) bix (c) fac (d) sut
174. In a certain code language, 'pit nae tom' means 'apple is green', 'nae to tap' means 'green and white', and 'ho
tom ka' means 'shirt is white'. Which of the following represents 'apple' in that language?
(a) nae (b) tom (c) pit (d) ho
175. The letter of TEACHING may be rearranged as CHEATING; if you follow the same code, what will happen to
GRADIENT?
(a) DIRAGENT (b) RADIGENT (c) DIERATIN (d) RATINGDI
176. What is the value of A, B, C and D in the following matrix?
A 17 14 11
B 15 16 21
C 12 19 22
23 D 13 8
(a) A =20, B =10, C =18, D = 9 (b) A =10, B =18, C = 9, D = 10
(c) A =20, B =10, C = 9, D = 18 (d) A = 10, B =20, C =18, D = 9
177. Find the missing number.
31 21 18 35
23 17 14 34
16 8 ? 2
(a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 12 (d) 16
178. Put the suitable number in the blank spaces.
2 9 16
3 28 35
4 ? ?
(a) 64 , 71 (b) 33 , 40 (c) 65 , 72 (d) 33 , 40
MAT Test Papers Page .. 22 ..
Direction for questions 179 to 183: Read the following information, and answer the questions given below.
P, Q, R and S live together in a house.
I. P lives with his (or her) parents.
II. Q lives with at least 3 persons younger than him (or her).
III. S lives with his mother, and is older than at least 2 persons living with him.
IV. R lives with his (or her) son and is not older than S.
179. The total number of persons in that house is ___.
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6
180. Q is P's ___.
(a) father (b) mother (c) son (d) grandmother
181. S is P's ___.
(a) brother (b) father (c) mother (d) sister
182. R is Q's ___.
(a) daughter (b) son (c) grandson (d) daughter-in-law
183. R is S's ___.
(a) wife (b) husband (c) son (d) daughter
184. A walks 2 km southward and takes a right-turn and walks 5 km and then turns left and walks 3 km and again
turning left walks 5 km. In which direction is he now from the starting point?
(a) South east (b) South (c) East (d) West
185. Mr Ajay started from his house, walked 4 km north, then 6 km west, then 12 km south. How far was he from his
home then?
(a) 8 km (b) 5 km (c) 20 km (d) 10 km
186. Aditya faces north and covers 24 km; turns west and covers 12 km, then turns south and covers 6 km, and
turns west again and covers 12 km. In which direction is moving with respect to the starting point?
(a) South-east (b) North-east (c) North-west (d) South-west
Direction for questions 187 to 191: Each of the following questions is based on the following series.
A B C D 5 F G H 9 J K L M N 15 P Q R 16 T U 22 W X Z
187. If the above series is were written in the reverse order, then which letter will be the 16th letter from the left?
(a) K (b) L (c) M (d) J
188. Which letter/number is 5th to the left of 19th letter from the right of A?
(a) M (b) P (c) Q (d) 15
189. Which letter/number is 9th to the left of 14th letter from your left?
(a) F (b) G (c) T (d) 5
190. Which of the following options would replace the quesstion mark?
AC5 G9K 13OQ ?
(a) Q16U (b) RT22 (c) SU22 (d) 16TU
191. Which letter is between 7th letter from left and 11th letter from right?
(a) K (b) L (c) M (d) J
MAT Test Papers Page .. 23 ..
Direction for questions 192 and 193: Answer the questions based on the following information.
P drank more at the party than W and left later than V.
T drank more than P and less than V and left later than P and earlier than S.
U drank less than Q and more than V and left later than S.
W drank more than R and left earlier than V.
192. Who left the earliest?
(a) P (b) S (c) T (d) W
193. Who among the following drank the least?
(a) P (b) R (c) T (d) U
Direction for questions 194 to 197: In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions
numbered I and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement
and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Mark:
(a) if only assumption I is implicit.
(b) if only assumption II is implicit.
(c) if either assumption I or II is implicit.
(d) if neither assumption I nor II is implicit.
194. Statement: To the extent that India operates in a globalized economy, it is absolutely vital that Indian industry
convince the rest of the global players about its worthiness of trust, honest intentions, promise-keeping and
ethical behaviour.
Assumptions:
I. The most advanced economies are becoming vigilant about corruption and unethical business practices.
II. Indian industry will have to demand of itself a respect for rules and transparent corporate governance.
195. Statement: No truthful Indian would have said that the judges of the Supreme Court were motivated by caste
in giving their decisions.
Assumptions:
I. Judges can never deliver judgements on the basis of caste lines.
II. Earlier our judiciary was monopolised by Brahmins.
196. Statement: There is no doubt that in the present warlike situation in the Kargil front, the entire nation is behind
our armed forces, both emotionally and financially.
Assumptions:
I. The relatives and near and dear ones of the army personnel are residing all over the country.
II. Different funds have been set up for supporting the families of the dead soldiers.
197. Statement: Stock Holding Corporation of India Ltd (SHCIL) will offer its services through the internet in the
next two months while its stock lending scheme is expected to take off in the immediate future.
Assumptions:
I. The said services via the internet are at a developmental stage.
II. The move will not benefit the stock brokers.
MAT Test Papers Page .. 24 ..
198. In the closing days of the Civil War, President Abraham Lincoln was planning to graciously welcome the
defeated Confederate states back into the Union. After Lincoln was assassinated, however, the
'Radical Republicans' in Congress imposed martial law in the South, creating resentment that caused problems
well into this century. Had Lincoln lived, the history of regional conflict in 20th-century America would have
been considerably different.
All of the following assumptions underlie the argument above EXCEPT
(a) the imposition of martial law in the South was primarily responsible for the resentment felt in the South.
(b) had he lived, Lincoln would have treated the defeated South as he had planned.
(c) Lincoln would have been able to prevent the Radical Republicans in Congress from imposing martial law
in the South.
(d) Factors other than the imposition of martial law in the South affected the history of regional conflicts in
20th-century America.
199. Rock and roll music started in the 1950s as a young man's medium, and rock is still best performed by men in
their 20s and 30s. As rock performers grow into their 40s, and even 50s, they are simply less physically capable
of producing the kind of exciting music they did when they were younger.
All the following assumptions underlie the argument above EXCEPT
(a) as rock performers mature, their performances tend to become less exciting.
(b) rock music is dominated by male performers.
(c) women performers have always played a significant role in rock music.
(d) the physical demands of performing rock are better met by the young.
200. The honeymooner's haven among the not-so-rich Americans, Las Vegas has much more to offer than shops
and slot machines. But sadly, tourists seldom stray off the beaten track. 2001 Guide is a book that encourages
the visitors to do so and discover the living museum, that is the Las Vegas city.
Which of the following information about 2001 Guide will weaken the intended impact of the book?
(a) The greatest attraction of Las Vegas that sets it apart from other places is its casino.
(b) 2001 Guide does not give a detailed account of the geography of the lesser known facts of Las Vegas.
(c) An increasing number of young couples are taking to adventures and undiscovered land.
(d) Las Vegas has many more visitors than first honeymooners. |
